🚑 NORCET-9 Previous Year Memory-Based MCQs (AIIMS Nursing Officer Exam)

NORCET-9 Previous Year Memory-Based MCQs (AIIMS Nursing Officer)

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Q1. A patient receiving haloperidol reports inability to sit still and constant restlessness. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Akathisia
• C. Parkinsonism
• D. Dystonia

Ans. B

Q2. The telephone number 18008914416 or 14416 is associated with which national government service?

• A. Tele-MANAS
• B. e-Sanjeevani (National Telemedicine Service)
• C. KIRAN (Mental Health Rehabilitation Helpline)
• D. 112 (National Emergency Helpline)

Ans. A

Q3. A patient with depression had attempted suicide 2 week ago is admitted in hospital. The patient suddenly becomes calm and relaxed. What does it indicate?

• A. Pt is well adjusted with staff
• B. Pt has a plan for suicide
• C. Stop suicide precautions immediately
• D. Discharge her without counselling

Ans. B

Q4. A patient has an MMSE score of 19. What does this indicate?

• A. Normal cognitive function
• B. Mild cognitive impairment
• C. Moderate cognitive impairment
• D. Severe cognitive impairment

Ans. C

Q5. A nurse assesses a patient with dementia. Regardless of the question asked, the patient replies, “I want to go home, home, home”. This speech pattern is best described as:

• A. Echolalia
• B. Perseveration
• C. Verbigeration
• D. Echopraxia

Ans. B

Q6. Which of the following is an example of counter-transference shown by a nurse?

• A. Sharing personal information with patient
• B. Listening to patient feelings
• C. You're the only person who's ever really understood me, like my sister used to.
• D. Sharing emotional feeling with patient

Ans. A

Q7. A patient begins to act overly dependent on the nurse and says “You remind me of my mom.” What psychological concept is this?

• A. Regression
• B. Identification
• C. Transference
• D. Dependency

Ans. C

Q8. Patient complains that food is poisoned. What is the best nursing intervention?

• A. Taste the food in front of patient
• B. Assure the patient that all food served in the hospital is safe to eat
• C. Offer the packed food and fruits
• D. Explain to the patient that it is a symptom of a disease

Ans. C

Q9. A patient taking lithium carbonate reports nausea, blurred vision, and confusion. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Monitor serum lithium level immediately
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• C. Withhold the next dose
• D. Document the findings and recheck lithium levels in the evening

Ans. C

Q10. A patient comes with hallucination and nasal irritation; likely substance abused is:

• A. LSD
• B. Marijuana
• C. Heroin
• D. Cocaine

Ans. D

Q11. In a psychiatric ward, a female patient lives with her abusive husband. Most appropriate non-judgmental statement?

• A. Would you like to share your problem with me?
• B. You still have a chance; you can discuss this topic with your family.
• C. Do you need help from the police?
• D. You are living with your husband; are you sure about your safety?

Ans. A

Q12. A 16-year-old girl with Borderline Personality Disorder typically shows:

• A. Unstable interpersonal relationships and fear of abandonment
• B. Social withdrawal and lack of emotional expression
• C. Preoccupation with orderliness and perfectionism
• D. Excessive suspiciousness and distrust of others

Ans. A

Q13. Correct route of administration for Mantoux test in TB screening:

• A. Intramuscular
• B. Subcutaneous
• C. Intradermal
• D. Subdermal

Ans. C

Q14. How many drops of Rotavac are given per dose under India's immunization program?

• A. 5 ml lyophilized solution
• B. 3 drops liquid solution
• C. 5 drops liquid solution
• D. 2 drops liquid solution

Ans. C

Q15. Which disease is prevented by Gardasil?

• A. Proton Pump inhibitor
• B. Anti-rabies vaccine
• C. Cervical cancer vaccine
• D. Liver cancer

Ans. C

Q16. Screening age for NON-communicable disease (NPCDCS):

• A. Above 15 years of the age
• B. Above 30 years of the age
• C. Above 45 years of the age
• D. Above 60 years of the age

Ans. B

Q17. Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?

• A. MMR
• B. Injectable Influenza
• C. DPT
• D. Pneumococcal

Ans. A

Q18. Which of the following is a weekly contraceptive method?

• A. Mala N
• B. Mala D
• C. Saheli
• D. Chhaya

Ans. D

Q19. As per ICDS requirement 6–72-month child needs:

• A. 600 calories and 30 gm protein
• B. 500 calories and 12–15 gm protein
• C. 300 calories and 8–12 gm protein
• D. 300 calories and 14–16 gm protein

Ans. B

Q20. ICU patient with delirium becomes confused and restless. Priority intervention?

• A. Administer haloperidol immediately
• B. Call the psychiatrist immediately
• C. Restraints the patient
• D. Assess and Reorient the patient

Ans. D

Q21. A patient is started on intravenous hydrocortisone. Which nursing action after administration?

• A. Assess hypoglycemia / hyperglycemia
• B. Encourage high-sodium diet
• C. Prevent risk of infection
• D. Monitor for hypokalaemia only

Ans. C

Q22. A child is admitted with kerosene poisoning. Priority nursing intervention?

• A) Keep the head low while performing gastric lavage
• B) Keep the child in upright position
• C) Induce vomiting immediately
• D) Gastric lavage is contraindicated

Ans. D

Q23. Anaphylactic shock belongs to which type of shock?

• A. Distributive shock
• B. Obstructive shock
• C. Cardiogenic shock
• D. Haemorrhagic shock

Ans. A

Q24. Another name of conscious sedation?

• A. General anaesthesia
• B. Moderate anaesthesia
• C. Mild anaesthesia
• D. Local infiltration anaesthesia

Ans. B

Q25. Priority nursing assessment in first 24 hours after thrombotic CVA?

• A. Pupil size and pupillary response
• B. Cholesterol level
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. Bowel sounds

Ans. A

Q26. Newborn needs resuscitation (HR <60 despite ventilation & compressions). Recommended IV adrenaline 1:10,000 dose?

• A. 0.5 ml ADR in 9.5 ml NS
• B. 0.2 ml ADR in 9.8 ml NS
• C. 1 ml ADR in 9 ml NS
• D. 0.1 ml ADR in 9.9 ml NS

Ans. D

Q27. Identify the given image ?

• A. Kawasaki disease
• B. Measles
• C. Pertussis
• D. TOF

Ans. A

Q28. Identify the given condition ?

• A. Exstrophy of bladder
• B. Omphalocele
• C. Gastroschisis
• D. Meningocele

Ans. A

Q29. Which is a sign of adequate breast milk intake in newborn?

• A. Sleeping through overnight
• B. Having 6–8 wet diapers in 24 hours
• C. Excessive crying
• D. Feeding every 5–6 hours

Ans. B

Q30. Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?

• A. Homi Bhabha
• B. Vikram Sarabhai
• C. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
• D. Rakesh Sharma

Ans. C

Q31. After tonsillectomy & adenoidectomy, which advice to mother?

• A. Observe for frequent swallowing
• B. Encourage vigorous gargling
• C. Give spicy and hard foods immediately
• D. Allow normal activity without restrictions

Ans. A

Q32. Mother is positive for Chlamydia at delivery; newborn asymptomatic. What to give?

• A. Erythromycin 0.5% ophthalmic
• B. Erythromycin oral
• C. Tetracycline
• D. 1% AgNO₃

Ans. A

Q33. In Cushing's triad, which is a late sign indicating severely increased ICP?

• A. Wide pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular respiration
• B. Tachycardia, Hypotension, Tachypnoea
• C. Bradypnea, Hypertension, Bradycardia
• D. Fever, fatigue, dizziness

Ans. A

Q34. Hemodialysis patient BP falls from 120/80 to 78/50. Priority action?

• A. Stop ultrafiltration, supine, elevate legs
• B. Decrease ultrafiltration rate gradually
• C. Administer antihypertensive medication
• D. Continue dialysis as planned

Ans. A

Q35. 34-week pregnant, BP 160/110, +3 protein, seizure. Next priority?

• A. Give magnesium sulfate & prepare for delivery (CS)
• B. Give antihypertensive and start IV fluids rapidly
• C. Give diazepam
• D. Observe and wait for spontaneous labour

Ans. A

Q36. Cushing's triad late sign of raised ICP is:

• A. Wide pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular respiration
• B. Tachycardia, Hypotension, Tachypnoea
• C. Bradypnea, Hypertension, Bradycardia
• D. Fever, fatigue, dizziness

Ans. A

Q37. Child with diaphoresis & severe respiratory distress. ECG interpretation?

• A. Supraventricular tachycardia
• B. Sinus tachycardia
• C. Normal sinus rhythm
• D. Ventricular fibrillation

Ans. A

Q38. START triage Red (immediate) priority?

• A. Burn patient (TBSA 80%, vitals stable)
• B. Patient with pinpoint pupils and breathing difficulty
• C. Cardiac arrest patient with no pulse
• D. Patient with fractured arm, walking

Ans. B

Q39. Cholecystectomy POD1 – best position for maximum gas exchange and lung expansion?

• A. Supine position with head flat
• B. Side lateral position with head elevated
• C. High Fowler's position (sitting upright at 60–90°)
• D. Prone position

Ans. C

Q40. Chemo patient lab requiring immediate action?

• A. Haemoglobin 8.2 g/dL
• B. Platelet count 18,000 /μL
• C. WBC 4,500/μL
• D. Neutrophils 2,000 /μL

Ans. B

Q41. Post-CABG 6 hours: chest tube 250 mL/hr ×3, hypotension, rising HR indicates:

• A. Cardiac tamponade
• B. Post-operative haemorrhage
• C. Pleural effusion
• D. Normal finding

Ans. B

Q42. Severe acute pancreatitis on ventilator (FiO₂ 100%, PEEP 12) with poor oxygenation. Immediate intervention?

• A. Place the patient in the prone position
• B. Increase tidal volume to improve oxygenation
• C. Decrease PEEP to avoid barotrauma
• D. Stop FiO₂ immediately to prevent oxygen toxicity

Ans. A

Q43. Nitroglycerine 50 mg in 500 mL DNS @ 15 mcg/min. Infusion rate?

• A. 9 mL/hour
• B. 90 mL/hour
• C. 99 mL/hour
• D. 19 mL/hour

Ans. A

Q44. IVP after NPO 8 h: serum osm 300 mOsm/L, Na 155 mEq/L, urine SG normal; patient thirsty. Interpretation?

• A. Fluid restriction; thirst is expected due to NPO
• B. ADH hormone is increased
• C. Kidney is not working properly
• D. Patient has diabetes insipidus

Ans. D

Q45. Long-standing diabetes with calf pain on walking; left foot cool & pale. Best monitoring?

• A. Nail bed colour and distal pulses (DP/PT) in left leg
• B. Calf circumference and Homan's sign
• C. Patellar reflexes and vibration sense
• D. Fasting blood glucose and HbA1c

Ans. A

Q46. Post-surgery fever; antibiotic prescribed. Per Antibiotic Stewardship, best nursing action?

• A. Administer antipyretic only
• B. Withhold antibiotics and send cultures before starting antibiotics
• C. Give antibiotics immediately as prescribed
• D. Increase fluid intake only

Ans. B

Q47. Fever, lower abdominal pain, foul-smelling discharge, bleeding – septic abortion in ED. Priority?

• A. Start IV fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics
• B. Evacuation of uterus
• C. Dilatation and curettage
• D. Blood transfusion

Ans. A

Q48. ABG: pH 7.55, PCO₂ 25 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 22 mEq/L. Disorder?

• A. Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis
• B. Compensated metabolic acidosis
• C. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
• D. Compensated respiratory acidosis

Ans. C

Q49. Using a too-small BP cuff will give:

• A. Falsely high reading
• B. Falsely low reading
• C. Accurate reading
• D. Cannot measure BP at all

Ans. A

Q50. 4 h post-ERCP: severe radiating pain, boardlike abdomen, 105°F (40.5°C). Highest priority?

• A. Administer prescribed analgesics
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• C. Reassess in 30 minutes
• D. Encourage ambulation to relieve gas

Ans. B

Q51. Suspected inhalation injury due to smoke exposure. Initial oxygen delivery?

• A. Nasal cannula
• B. Venturi mask
• C. Non-rebreather mask (NRBM) with 100% FiO₂
• D. Simple face mask

Ans. C

Q52. 15-month-old baby urine sample taken by?

• A. Ask mother for taking sample
• B. Take sample from diaper
• C. Collect mid-stream clean-catch
• D. Collect sample from urinary catheter

Ans. C

Q53. Serum potassium 6.37 mEq/L. IV calcium ordered. Priority nursing action?

• A. Administer calcium injection over 10–15 minutes and monitor for arrhythmias
• B. Administer calcium as a rapid IV push
• C. Hold calcium and repeat potassium after 1 hour
• D. Give oral calcium and potassium binder

Ans. A

Q54. Which statement is NOT true regarding Anti-D immunoglobulin?

• A. In first-trimester abortion, 50 μg of Anti-D is given
• B. 300 μg after delivery within 72 hours postpartum if the baby is Rh positive
• C. 300 μg of Anti-D can neutralize 30 mL of fetal RBC
• D. 100 μg of Anti-D is given after abortion in the first trimester (12 week)

Ans. D

Q55. Single umbilical artery (SUA) is NOT associated with:

• A. Imperforated anus
• B. Renal anomalies
• C. Esophageal atresia
• D. Genitourinary abnormality

Ans. A

Q56. Labour: dilation 5 cm, effacement 40%, station −1. Current stage?

• A. Latent phase
• B. Active phase
• C. Transition phase
• D. Second stage of labour

Ans. B

Q57. 34-week pregnant woman with severe HTN, +3 protein, seizure. Next priority?

• A. Give magnesium sulfate and prepare for delivery (CS)
• B. Give an antihypertensive and start IV fluids rapidly
• C. Give diazepam
• D. Observe her and wait for spontaneous labour

Ans. A

Q58. Primary amenorrhoea with imperforated hymen and retained blood. Likely diagnosis:

• A. Amenorrhea due to hormonal deficiency
• B. Cryptomenorrhea
• C. Dysmenorrhea
• D. Menorrhoea

Ans. B

Q59. Heavy bleeding 2 weeks after uncomplicated vaginal delivery. Most common cause?

• A. Uterine anonymous
• B. Subinvolution of the uterus
• C. Retained products of placenta
• D. Uterine atony

Ans. C

Q60. Third stage: nurse applies pressure to lower abdomen during placental delivery. Doing what?

• A. Giving fundal pressure
• B. Assisting with controlled cord traction
• C. Applying uterine massage after placenta delivery
• D. Assisting with perineal massage

Ans. B

Q61. Lesion: small, firm, pink-red nodule at urethral meatus; pain while sitting/walking.

• A. Vaginosis
• B. Trichomoniasis
• C. Bartholin abscess
• D. Vaginal polyp

Ans. D

Q62. Breech: allow baby to hang briefly, grasp ankles, lift upward in an arc. Maneuver?

• A. McRoberts maneuver
• B. Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver
• C. Burns-Marshall maneuver
• D. Ritgen maneuver

Ans. C

Q63. 36-year-old with secondary amenorrhoea; karyotype 45,XO. Diagnosis?

• A. Turner syndrome
• B. Klinefelter syndrome
• C. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
• D. Asherman syndrome

Ans. A

Q64. Twin labour: first twin low FHR → suddenly second twin heart sounds absent; mother becomes shocked. Most likely?

• A. Uterine rupture
• B. Cord prolapse of the second twin
• C. Abruptio placentae
• D. Vasa previa

Ans. D

Q65. Severe abdominal pain with diarrhea & vomiting. After inspection, next step of abdominal exam?

• A. Deep abdominal palpation
• B. Percussion
• C. Auscultation in clockwise direction
• D. Palpate for any extra mass & protrusion

Ans. C

Q66. GTD under treatment for 3 months; bleeding and rising β-hCG. Indicates:

• A. Normal course of disease
• B. Treatment failure / Persistent GTD
• C. Complete recovery
• D. Molar pregnancy regression

Ans. B

Q67. Shoulder dystocia: first maneuver to attempt?

• A. Suprapubic pressure
• B. McRoberts maneuver
• C. Woods screw maneuver
• D. Zavanelli maneuver

Ans. B

Q68. Which correctly differentiates surveillance from research epidemiology?

• A. Surveillance is systematic; research aims at generating new knowledge
• B. Surveillance only during epidemics; research only non-epidemic
• C. Surveillance is retrospective; research always prospective
• D. Surveillance needs less ethics; research always needs ethics

Ans. A

Q69. Shantiniketan, founded by Rabindranath Tagore, is located in:

• A. Assam
• B. AP
• C. West Bengal
• D. Odisha

Ans. C

Q70. The phrase "to break the ice" means:

• A. To start quarrel
• B. To spoil the plan
• C. Make people feel more relax
• D. To starting conflict

Ans. C

Q71. Who developed the Java programming language?

• A. Sun microsystem
• B. Windows
• C. Microsoft
• D. oreka

Ans. A

Q72. Which of the following is an output device in a computer?

• A. Keyboard
• B. Mouse
• C. Printer
• D. Scanner

Ans. C

Q73. Which Indian state has the longest coastline?

• A. Odisha
• B. Maharashtra
• C. Gujarat
• D. Andhra Pradesh

Ans. C

Q74. A person walks 2 KM North, then 3 KM East, and then 2 KM South. Distance from starting point?

• A. 2 km
• B. 8 km
• C. 3 km
• D. 4 km

Ans. C

Q75. Where is the headquarters of UNESCO located?

• A. New York, USA
• B. Geneva, Switzerland
• C. Paris, France
• D. London, United Kingdom

Ans. C

Q76. Antonym of "transparent" is:

• A. Opaque
• B. Bright
• C. Clear
• D. Clean

Ans. A

Q77. Who built the Jama Masjid in Delhi, India?

• A. Akbar
• B. Shah Jahan
• C. Aurangzeb
• D. Humayun

Ans. B

Q78. Which of the following is a synonym of "vindicate"?

• A. Blame
• B. Justify
• C. Accuse
• D. Condemn

Ans. B

Q79. Find the next number in the series: 2, 4, 8, 16, ?

• A. 18
• B. 20
• C. 24
• D. 32

Ans. D

Q80. The Sputnik first artificial satellite was launched in 1957 by which country?

• A. United States
• B. United Kingdom
• C. Soviet Union (USSR)
• D. France

Ans. C

Q81. Which of the following shapes is different from the others?

• A. Circle
• B. Triangle
• C. Rectangle
• D. Square

Ans. A

Q82. Which key on the keyboard is commonly used to refresh a webpage or window?

• A. F1
• B. F5
• C. F12
• D. Esc

Ans. B

Q83. He was absent .......... he was ill

• A. But
• B. Because
• C. Since
• D. how

Ans. B

Q84. He said “I am busy now” – convert to indirect speech

• A. He said that he was busy then
• B. He said he was busy then
• C. He said i am busy now
• D. None of above

Ans. A

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FAQs – NORCET-9 Memory-Based MCQs

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