SGPGI NURSING OFFICER • MEMORY BASED QUESTIONS 2026
SGPGI Nursing Officer Memory Based Questions 2026
Practice important SGPGI Nursing Officer memory-based MCQs with answers, detailed rationales and exam-oriented revision points.
📝 28 MCQs
🎯 SGPGI
👩⚕️ Nursing Officer
💡 Detailed Rationales
🔥 Memory Based
📚 Exam Practice
How to use this test:
Try to answer every question yourself first. Then open Show Answer and Show Rationale to revise the concept.
Try to answer every question yourself first. Then open Show Answer and Show Rationale to revise the concept.
📚 SGPGI Nursing Officer Memory Based MCQs
Q1
How much of 5% Sodium Hypochlorite stock is required to prepare 2 L of 0.5% solution?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B) 200 ml
Using dilution formula C₁V₁ = C₂V₂.
5 × V₁ = 0.5 × 2000
V₁ = 1000 ÷ 5 = 200 ml.
Therefore, 200 ml of 5% stock solution is required and water is added up to 2 litres. Sodium hypochlorite is commonly used for environmental and blood-spill disinfection in healthcare settings.
5 × V₁ = 0.5 × 2000
V₁ = 1000 ÷ 5 = 200 ml.
Therefore, 200 ml of 5% stock solution is required and water is added up to 2 litres. Sodium hypochlorite is commonly used for environmental and blood-spill disinfection in healthcare settings.
Q2
According to Parkland formula, how much fluid should be given in the first 8 hours to a 50 kg patient with 40% burns?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B) 4000 ml
Parkland Formula = 4 ml × Body Weight (kg) × %TBSA Burn.
= 4 × 50 × 40 = 8000 ml in first 24 hours.
Half of the total volume is given in the first 8 hours.
8000 ÷ 2 = 4000 ml.
The remaining 4000 ml is administered during the next 16 hours.
= 4 × 50 × 40 = 8000 ml in first 24 hours.
Half of the total volume is given in the first 8 hours.
8000 ÷ 2 = 4000 ml.
The remaining 4000 ml is administered during the next 16 hours.
Q3
A square has area 1079 m². If its length is increased by 4 m and width decreased by 4 m, what will be the area of the new rectangle?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: A) 1063 m²
Let the side of square be s.
Area = s² = 1079.
New rectangle area = (s+4)(s−4).
Using identity (a+b)(a−b)=a²−b².
Area = s² − 16
= 1079 − 16
= 1063 m².
Area = s² = 1079.
New rectangle area = (s+4)(s−4).
Using identity (a+b)(a−b)=a²−b².
Area = s² − 16
= 1079 − 16
= 1063 m².
Q4
A person who knows and can use many languages is called:
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: C) Polyglot
A Polyglot is a person who can speak, read, or use multiple languages fluently.
Philologist studies the history of languages.
Linguist studies language scientifically.
Grammarian specializes in grammar rules.
Philologist studies the history of languages.
Linguist studies language scientifically.
Grammarian specializes in grammar rules.
Q5
A lady has bleeding immediately after delivery. What is the most appropriate nursing management?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B) Firm uterine massage and oxytocin
The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is uterine atony.
Immediate nursing actions include:
• Fundal/Uterine massage
• Administration of Oxytocin
• Monitoring vital signs
• Maintaining IV access
Early intervention can prevent shock and maternal mortality.
Immediate nursing actions include:
• Fundal/Uterine massage
• Administration of Oxytocin
• Monitoring vital signs
• Maintaining IV access
Early intervention can prevent shock and maternal mortality.
Q6
A newborn at 1 minute has HR 110/min, slow irregular respiration, grimace, abnormal flexion, body pink with blue extremities. What is the Apgar score?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B) 6
Heart Rate >100 = 2 points
Slow respiration = 1 point
Grimace = 1 point
Some flexion = 1 point
Acrocyanosis = 1 point
Total = 2+1+1+1+1 = 6.
Slow respiration = 1 point
Grimace = 1 point
Some flexion = 1 point
Acrocyanosis = 1 point
Total = 2+1+1+1+1 = 6.
Q7
A patient responds with eye opening to pain, incomprehensible sounds, and abnormal flexion. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale score?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B) 7
Eye opening to pain = E2
Incomprehensible sounds = V2
Abnormal flexion = M3
Total GCS = 2+2+3 = 7.
A GCS of 8 or less generally indicates severe brain injury and possible airway protection requirements.
Incomprehensible sounds = V2
Abnormal flexion = M3
Total GCS = 2+2+3 = 7.
A GCS of 8 or less generally indicates severe brain injury and possible airway protection requirements.
Q8
A 34-week pregnant woman with BP 160/90 mmHg, headache, and confusion is admitted. What is the most important risk to prevent?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B) Eclamptic convulsion
This patient has severe preeclampsia features:
• Severe hypertension
• Headache
• Neurological symptoms (confusion)
The immediate life-threatening complication is eclampsia (seizure).
Nursing priorities:
• Seizure precautions
• Magnesium sulfate administration
• Blood pressure monitoring
• Fetal monitoring
• Severe hypertension
• Headache
• Neurological symptoms (confusion)
The immediate life-threatening complication is eclampsia (seizure).
Nursing priorities:
• Seizure precautions
• Magnesium sulfate administration
• Blood pressure monitoring
• Fetal monitoring
Q9
A patient’s BP suddenly drops and doctor suspects cardiac tamponade. Which clinical triad confirms the diagnosis?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B) Beck’s triad
Beck's Triad consists of:
• Hypotension
• Raised Jugular Venous Pressure (JVP)
• Muffled heart sounds
It is the classic finding in cardiac tamponade.
• Hypotension
• Raised Jugular Venous Pressure (JVP)
• Muffled heart sounds
It is the classic finding in cardiac tamponade.
Q10
A nurse is given authority to lead chronic disease management. This situation represents:
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B) Clinical care increase / Role expansion
Role Expansion means nurses undertake additional responsibilities beyond traditional bedside care while working collaboratively with the healthcare team.
Examples:
• Nurse Practitioner
• Chronic Disease Clinics
• Advanced Practice Nursing
• Nurse-led Counseling Services
Examples:
• Nurse Practitioner
• Chronic Disease Clinics
• Advanced Practice Nursing
• Nurse-led Counseling Services
Q11
A patient presents with jaw pain, SpO₂ 95% on room air, IV line is secured, cardiac biomarkers are sent. What is the most appropriate next step?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: C) Carry out 12-lead ECG
Jaw pain may be an atypical presentation of Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS), especially in women, elderly patients, and diabetics.
The patient already has IV access secured and cardiac biomarkers sent, with adequate oxygen saturation. The next priority is obtaining a 12-lead ECG within 10 minutes to identify STEMI or NSTEMI and guide urgent treatment decisions.
Why other options are incorrect:
A) Oxygen is recommended only if SpO₂ is below 90% or respiratory distress is present.
B) Monitoring alone delays diagnosis.
D) Morphine is not the immediate next step before ECG confirmation.
The patient already has IV access secured and cardiac biomarkers sent, with adequate oxygen saturation. The next priority is obtaining a 12-lead ECG within 10 minutes to identify STEMI or NSTEMI and guide urgent treatment decisions.
Why other options are incorrect:
A) Oxygen is recommended only if SpO₂ is below 90% or respiratory distress is present.
B) Monitoring alone delays diagnosis.
D) Morphine is not the immediate next step before ECG confirmation.
Q12
Why is calcium gluconate given in a patient with hyperkalemia?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: C) To stabilize cardiac membrane and prevent arrhythmias
Hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate protects the myocardium by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane.
It acts rapidly but does not reduce serum potassium levels.
A) Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion.
B) Insulin and beta-agonists shift potassium into cells.
D) Calcium gluconate does not directly lower potassium.
Clinical Pearl: Hyperkalemia emergency treatment often includes Calcium Gluconate + Insulin + Dextrose.
It acts rapidly but does not reduce serum potassium levels.
A) Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion.
B) Insulin and beta-agonists shift potassium into cells.
D) Calcium gluconate does not directly lower potassium.
Clinical Pearl: Hyperkalemia emergency treatment often includes Calcium Gluconate + Insulin + Dextrose.
Q13
If a woman’s LMP was 10 March 2025, what will be her EDD according to Naegele’s formula?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B) 17 December 2025
Naegele’s Rule:
• Add 7 days to the first day of LMP.
• Subtract 3 months.
• Add 1 year.
LMP = 10 March 2025
+7 days = 17 March 2025
−3 months = 17 December 2025
Therefore, EDD = 17 December 2025.
• Add 7 days to the first day of LMP.
• Subtract 3 months.
• Add 1 year.
LMP = 10 March 2025
+7 days = 17 March 2025
−3 months = 17 December 2025
Therefore, EDD = 17 December 2025.
Q14
A farmer presents with signs of organophosphorus poisoning. What is the specific antidote?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: A) Atropine
Organophosphorus compounds inhibit acetylcholinesterase, causing excessive accumulation of acetylcholine.
Symptoms include:
• Salivation
• Lacrimation
• Urination
• Diarrhea
• Bronchospasm
• Miosis
Atropine blocks muscarinic receptors and is the primary antidote. Additional antidote: Pralidoxime (2-PAM).
Symptoms include:
• Salivation
• Lacrimation
• Urination
• Diarrhea
• Bronchospasm
• Miosis
Atropine blocks muscarinic receptors and is the primary antidote. Additional antidote: Pralidoxime (2-PAM).
Q15
What is the antidote for opioid poisoning?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B) Naloxone
Opioid overdose commonly presents with respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils and reduced consciousness.
Naloxone is a competitive opioid receptor antagonist and rapidly reverses opioid toxicity.
Atropine → Organophosphorus poisoning
Flumazenil → Benzodiazepine overdose
Naltrexone → Long-term opioid dependence treatment
Naloxone is a competitive opioid receptor antagonist and rapidly reverses opioid toxicity.
Atropine → Organophosphorus poisoning
Flumazenil → Benzodiazepine overdose
Naltrexone → Long-term opioid dependence treatment
Q16
Agartala–Akhaura rail link connects India with which country?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: C) Bangladesh
The Agartala–Akhaura Rail Link Project connects Tripura in India with Akhaura in Bangladesh.
Benefits include improved trade and connectivity, strengthened India-Bangladesh relations and reduced travel time to Northeast India.
Benefits include improved trade and connectivity, strengthened India-Bangladesh relations and reduced travel time to Northeast India.
Q17
A village with 1,20,000 population has 20 Sub-centres, 3 PHCs, and 1 CHC. According to IPHS norms, which facility needs to be enlarged?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: A) Only PHC
IPHS Norms:
• Sub-centre = 1 per 5000 population
• PHC = 1 per 30,000 population
• CHC = 1 per 1,20,000 population
Population = 1,20,000
Required PHCs = 120000 ÷ 30000 = 4
Available = 3
Hence one additional PHC is required.
• Sub-centre = 1 per 5000 population
• PHC = 1 per 30,000 population
• CHC = 1 per 1,20,000 population
Population = 1,20,000
Required PHCs = 120000 ÷ 30000 = 4
Available = 3
Hence one additional PHC is required.
Q18
A patient insists that someone is watching him with a hidden camera and tracking all his movements. This is best described as:
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: C) Delusion of persecution
A delusion of persecution is a false fixed belief that others are spying, following, tracking or trying to harm the person.
This is commonly seen in schizophrenia and psychotic disorders.
This is commonly seen in schizophrenia and psychotic disorders.
Q19
A depressed patient says, “I feel like a burden to my family. Sometimes I think of dying, but I don’t have any plan.” What should be the nurse’s best response?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: A) Are you having a plan to die or suicide?
When suicidal thoughts are expressed, the first nursing priority is assessment of suicide risk.
Direct questions should include:
• Are you thinking about suicide?
• Do you have a plan?
• Do you have access to means?
Direct questioning is an important part of suicide-risk assessment.
Direct questions should include:
• Are you thinking about suicide?
• Do you have a plan?
• Do you have access to means?
Direct questioning is an important part of suicide-risk assessment.
Q20
An infant with diarrhoea has sunken eyes, drinks eagerly, and skin pinch returns slowly. What is the correct classification?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: C) Some dehydration (give ORS solution)
According to WHO/IMNCI guidelines, Some Dehydration is diagnosed when two or more of the following are present:
• Sunken eyes
• Drinks eagerly/thirsty
• Skin pinch returns slowly
Management includes ORS therapy (Plan B), zinc supplementation and continued feeding/breastfeeding.
• Sunken eyes
• Drinks eagerly/thirsty
• Skin pinch returns slowly
Management includes ORS therapy (Plan B), zinc supplementation and continued feeding/breastfeeding.
Q21
A diabetic patient on insulin develops sudden hypoglycemia (RBS 48 mg/dL) and serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L. What is the reason for decreased potassium?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B) Insulin decreases serum potassium by shifting it into cells
Insulin activates the Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump, causing potassium to move from the bloodstream into cells.
As a result:
• Blood glucose decreases
• Serum potassium decreases
This is why insulin is commonly used in emergency treatment of hyperkalemia.
As a result:
• Blood glucose decreases
• Serum potassium decreases
This is why insulin is commonly used in emergency treatment of hyperkalemia.
Q22
A bed-ridden patient has redness over sacrum. On pressing, it does not blanch, but skin layer is intact. What grade of bed sore is this?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: A) Stage I
Stage I Pressure Injury is characterized by:
• Intact skin
• Non-blanchable redness
• Localized erythema over bony prominence
This is the earliest visible sign of pressure damage.
Stage II → Partial-thickness skin loss or blister.
Stage III → Full-thickness skin loss with fat visible.
Stage IV → Exposure of muscle, tendon or bone.
• Intact skin
• Non-blanchable redness
• Localized erythema over bony prominence
This is the earliest visible sign of pressure damage.
Stage II → Partial-thickness skin loss or blister.
Stage III → Full-thickness skin loss with fat visible.
Stage IV → Exposure of muscle, tendon or bone.
Q23
In a village of 5,000 population, there are 40 old cases and 60 new cases of a disease. What is the incidence rate per 1000 population?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B) 12 per 1000
Incidence measures only NEW cases occurring during a specified period.
Formula:
Incidence = (New Cases ÷ Population) × 1000
= (60 ÷ 5000) × 1000
= 12 per 1000 population.
Old cases contribute to prevalence, not incidence.
Formula:
Incidence = (New Cases ÷ Population) × 1000
= (60 ÷ 5000) × 1000
= 12 per 1000 population.
Old cases contribute to prevalence, not incidence.
Q24
Rohan has exam on 12 March at Jaipur. Sara has exam 3 days later at Bhopal. Teena has exam 1 day after Rohan at Indore. Whose exam is on 13 March and where?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: C) Teena – Indore
Timeline:
• Rohan → 12 March → Jaipur
• Teena → 13 March → Indore
• Sara → 15 March → Bhopal
Therefore, the exam on 13 March is Teena's exam at Indore.
• Rohan → 12 March → Jaipur
• Teena → 13 March → Indore
• Sara → 15 March → Bhopal
Therefore, the exam on 13 March is Teena's exam at Indore.
Q25
A patient with pancreatitis presents with deficiency of vitamins A, D, E, K and inadequate triglyceride digestion. Which enzyme deficiency is responsible?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B) Lipase
Pancreatic lipase is responsible for digestion of dietary fats (triglycerides).
Lipase deficiency causes:
• Steatorrhea
• Fat malabsorption
• Deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E and K
Amylase → Carbohydrate digestion.
Pepsin → Protein digestion in stomach.
Trypsin → Protein digestion in intestine.
Lipase deficiency causes:
• Steatorrhea
• Fat malabsorption
• Deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E and K
Amylase → Carbohydrate digestion.
Pepsin → Protein digestion in stomach.
Trypsin → Protein digestion in intestine.
Q26
Endoscopes cannot be autoclaved. Which method is used for their sterilization/disinfection?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: C) 2% Glutaraldehyde
Flexible endoscopes are heat-sensitive instruments and cannot be sterilized by autoclaving.
2% Glutaraldehyde (Cidex) provides high-level disinfection and is traditionally used for endoscopes, bronchoscopes and other heat-sensitive instruments.
Autoclaving damages equipment. Boiling is inadequate for high-level disinfection. 70% alcohol is mainly used for surface disinfection.
2% Glutaraldehyde (Cidex) provides high-level disinfection and is traditionally used for endoscopes, bronchoscopes and other heat-sensitive instruments.
Autoclaving damages equipment. Boiling is inadequate for high-level disinfection. 70% alcohol is mainly used for surface disinfection.
Q27
Find the missing number in the series: 6, 14, 29, 53, 88, ?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B) 136
First differences:
14−6 = 8
29−14 = 15
53−29 = 24
88−53 = 35
Second differences:
15−8 = 7
24−15 = 9
35−24 = 11
Pattern increases by +2.
Next second difference = 13
Next first difference = 35 + 13 = 48
Next term = 88 + 48 = 136.
14−6 = 8
29−14 = 15
53−29 = 24
88−53 = 35
Second differences:
15−8 = 7
24−15 = 9
35−24 = 11
Pattern increases by +2.
Next second difference = 13
Next first difference = 35 + 13 = 48
Next term = 88 + 48 = 136.
Q28
A patient requires 56 units of insulin in 2 divided doses. Available vial is U-100 insulin and syringe is 1 mL. What volume should be drawn for each dose?
✅ Show Answer & Rationale
Correct Answer: B) 0.28 mL
Total insulin dose = 56 units.
Given in 2 divided doses: 56 ÷ 2 = 28 units per dose.
U-100 insulin means 100 units = 1 mL.
Therefore: 28 units = 28/100 mL = 0.28 mL.
0.56 mL = Entire 56-unit dose.
0.14 mL = 14 units only.
1.0 mL = 100 units.
Nursing Calculation Tip:
For U-100 insulin, divide units by 100 to obtain volume in mL.
Given in 2 divided doses: 56 ÷ 2 = 28 units per dose.
U-100 insulin means 100 units = 1 mL.
Therefore: 28 units = 28/100 mL = 0.28 mL.
0.56 mL = Entire 56-unit dose.
0.14 mL = 14 units only.
1.0 mL = 100 units.
Nursing Calculation Tip:
For U-100 insulin, divide units by 100 to obtain volume in mL.
🎯 SGPGI Nursing Officer Memory Based Paper – Quick Revision
- Insulin shifts potassium into cells.
- Stage I Pressure Injury = Non-blanchable erythema.
- Incidence = New cases only.
- Lipase digests fats and aids absorption of vitamins A, D, E, K.
- Endoscope disinfection = High-level disinfection; follow current manufacturer/institutional protocol.
- U-100 Insulin = 100 units/mL.
- Reasoning series often uses first and second difference patterns.
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❓ Frequently Asked Questions
Is SGPGI Nursing Officer exam difficult?
The exam covers nursing concepts, clinical scenarios and other examination areas. Candidates should combine memory-based questions with systematic subject-wise preparation.
Are memory based questions enough for preparation?
No. Memory based questions should be combined with standard nursing subjects, previous-year questions and mock tests.
What is an important subject area for SGPGI Nursing Officer preparation?
Medical-Surgical Nursing is an important area, along with other core nursing subjects, clinical scenarios, fundamentals, OBG, pediatrics, community health and mental health nursing.
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MediQuizHub provides nursing MCQs, test series, rationales and exam-oriented practice questions.
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Nursing Officer • NORCET • AIIMS • SGPGI • RRB • Nursing Exam Preparation
Nursing Officer • NORCET • AIIMS • SGPGI • RRB • Nursing Exam Preparation
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