Q1. How much of 5% Sodium Hypochlorite stock is required to prepare 2 L of 0.5% solution?
A) 100 ml
B) 200 ml
C) 400 ml
D) 500 ml
Correct Answer: B) 200 ml
Using dilution formula C₁V₁ = C₂V₂.
5 × V₁ = 0.5 × 2000
V₁ = 1000 ÷ 5 = 200 ml.
Therefore 200 ml of 5% stock solution is required and water is added up to 2 litres. Sodium hypochlorite is commonly used for environmental and blood-spill disinfection in healthcare settings.
5 × V₁ = 0.5 × 2000
V₁ = 1000 ÷ 5 = 200 ml.
Therefore 200 ml of 5% stock solution is required and water is added up to 2 litres. Sodium hypochlorite is commonly used for environmental and blood-spill disinfection in healthcare settings.
Q2. According to Parkland formula, how much fluid should be given in the first 8 hours to a 50 kg patient with 40% burns?
A) 2000 ml
B) 4000 ml
C) 6000 ml
D) 8000 ml
Correct Answer: B) 4000 ml
Parkland Formula = 4 ml × Body Weight (kg) × %TBSA Burn.
= 4 × 50 × 40
= 8000 ml in first 24 hours.
Half of the total volume is given in the first 8 hours.
8000 ÷ 2 = 4000 ml.
The remaining 4000 ml is administered during the next 16 hours.
= 4 × 50 × 40
= 8000 ml in first 24 hours.
Half of the total volume is given in the first 8 hours.
8000 ÷ 2 = 4000 ml.
The remaining 4000 ml is administered during the next 16 hours.
Q3. A square has area 1079 m². If its length is increased by 4 m and width decreased by 4 m, what will be the area of the new rectangle?
A) 1063 m²
B) 1079 m²
C) 1200 m²
D) 1358 m²
Correct Answer: A) 1063 m²
Let the side of square be s.
Area = s² = 1079.
New rectangle area = (s+4)(s−4).
Using identity (a+b)(a−b)=a²−b²
Area = s² − 16
= 1079 − 16
= 1063 m².
Area = s² = 1079.
New rectangle area = (s+4)(s−4).
Using identity (a+b)(a−b)=a²−b²
Area = s² − 16
= 1079 − 16
= 1063 m².
Q4. A person who knows and can use many languages is called:
A) Philologist
B) Linguist
C) Polyglot
D) Grammarian
Correct Answer: C) Polyglot
A Polyglot is a person who can speak, read, or use multiple languages fluently.
Philologist studies the history of languages.
Linguist studies language scientifically.
Grammarian specializes in grammar rules.
Philologist studies the history of languages.
Linguist studies language scientifically.
Grammarian specializes in grammar rules.
Q5. A lady has bleeding immediately after delivery. What is the most appropriate nursing management?
A) Vaginal examination
B) Firm uterine massage and oxytocin
C) Discharge with reassurance
D) Avoid uterine massage
Correct Answer: B) Firm uterine massage and oxytocin
The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is uterine atony.
Immediate nursing actions include:
Immediate nursing actions include:
- Fundal/Uterine massage
- Administration of Oxytocin
- Monitoring vital signs
- Maintaining IV access
Q6. A newborn at 1 minute has HR 110/min, slow irregular respiration, grimace, abnormal flexion, body pink with blue extremities. What is the Apgar score?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Correct Answer: B) 6
Heart Rate >100 = 2 points
Slow respiration = 1 point
Grimace = 1 point
Some flexion = 1 point
Acrocyanosis = 1 point
Total = 2+1+1+1+1 = 6.
Slow respiration = 1 point
Grimace = 1 point
Some flexion = 1 point
Acrocyanosis = 1 point
Total = 2+1+1+1+1 = 6.
Q7. A patient responds with eye opening to pain, incomprehensible sounds, and abnormal flexion. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale score?
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
Correct Answer: B) 7
Eye opening to pain = E2
Incomprehensible sounds = V2
Abnormal flexion = M3
Total GCS = 2+2+3 = 7.
A GCS of 8 or less generally indicates severe brain injury and possible airway protection requirements.
Incomprehensible sounds = V2
Abnormal flexion = M3
Total GCS = 2+2+3 = 7.
A GCS of 8 or less generally indicates severe brain injury and possible airway protection requirements.
Q8. A 34-week pregnant woman with BP 160/90 mmHg, headache, and confusion is admitted. What is the most important risk to prevent?
A) Postpartum hemorrhage
B) Eclamptic convulsion
C) Placental abruption
D) Preterm labor
Correct Answer: B) Eclamptic convulsion
This patient has severe preeclampsia features:
Nursing priorities:
- Severe hypertension
- Headache
- Neurological symptoms (confusion)
Nursing priorities:
- Seizure precautions
- Magnesium sulfate administration
- Blood pressure monitoring
- Fetal monitoring
Q9. A patient’s BP suddenly drops and doctor suspects cardiac tamponade. Which clinical triad confirms the diagnosis?
A) Charcot’s triad
B) Beck’s triad
C) Virchow’s triad
D) Cushing’s triad
Correct Answer: B) Beck’s triad
Beck's Triad consists of:
- Hypotension
- Raised Jugular Venous Pressure (JVP)
- Muffled heart sounds
Q10. A nurse is given authority to lead chronic disease management. This situation represents:
A) Physician’s responsibility taken away
B) Clinical care increase / Role expansion
C) Substitution of physician
D) None of the above
Correct Answer: B) Clinical care increase / Role expansion
Role Expansion means nurses undertake additional responsibilities beyond traditional bedside care while working collaboratively with the healthcare team.
Examples:
Examples:
- Nurse Practitioner
- Chronic Disease Clinics
- Advanced Practice Nursing
- Nurse-led Counseling Services
Q11. A patient presents with jaw pain, SpO₂ 95% on room air, IV line is secured, cardiac biomarkers are sent. What is the most appropriate next step?
A) High-flow oxygen
B) Monitor patient
C) Carry out 12-lead ECG
D) Give morphine
Correct Answer: C) Carry out 12-lead ECG
Jaw pain may be an atypical presentation of Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS), especially in women, elderly patients, and diabetics.
The patient already has:
Why other options are incorrect:
The patient already has:
- IV access secured
- Cardiac biomarkers sent
- Adequate oxygen saturation (95%)
Why other options are incorrect:
- A) Oxygen is recommended only if SpO₂ is below 90% or respiratory distress is present.
- B) Monitoring alone delays diagnosis.
- D) Morphine is not the immediate next step before ECG confirmation.
Q12. Why is calcium gluconate given in a patient with hyperkalemia?
A) To increase renal excretion of potassium
B) To shift potassium into cells
C) To stabilize cardiac membrane and prevent arrhythmias
D) To lower serum potassium directly
Correct Answer: C) To stabilize cardiac membrane and prevent arrhythmias
Hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate protects the myocardium by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane.
It acts rapidly but does not reduce serum potassium levels.
Why other options are incorrect:
It acts rapidly but does not reduce serum potassium levels.
Why other options are incorrect:
- A) Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, not calcium gluconate.
- B) Insulin and beta-agonists shift potassium into cells.
- D) Calcium gluconate does not directly lower potassium.
Q13. If a woman’s LMP was 10 March 2025, what will be her EDD according to Naegele’s formula?
A) 10 December 2025
B) 17 December 2025
C) 7 December 2025
D) 17 November 2025
Correct Answer: B) 17 December 2025
Naegele’s Rule:
+7 days = 17 March 2025
−3 months = 17 December 2025
Therefore, EDD = 17 December 2025.
- Add 7 days to the first day of LMP.
- Subtract 3 months.
- Add 1 year.
+7 days = 17 March 2025
−3 months = 17 December 2025
Therefore, EDD = 17 December 2025.
Q14. A farmer presents with signs of organophosphorus poisoning. What is the specific antidote?
A) Atropine
B) Naloxone
C) Physostigmine
D) Diazepam
Correct Answer: A) Atropine
Organophosphorus compounds inhibit acetylcholinesterase, causing excessive accumulation of acetylcholine.
Symptoms include:
Additional antidote: Pralidoxime (2-PAM).
Symptoms include:
- Salivation
- Lacrimation
- Urination
- Diarrhea
- Bronchospasm
- Miosis
Additional antidote: Pralidoxime (2-PAM).
Q15. What is the antidote for opioid poisoning?
A) Atropine
B) Naloxone
C) Flumazenil
D) Naltrexone
Correct Answer: B) Naloxone
Opioid overdose commonly presents with:
Why others are incorrect:
- Respiratory depression
- Pinpoint pupils
- Reduced consciousness
Why others are incorrect:
- Atropine → Organophosphorus poisoning
- Flumazenil → Benzodiazepine overdose
- Naltrexone → Long-term opioid dependence treatment
Q16. Agartala–Akhaura rail link connects India with which country?
A) Bhutan
B) Myanmar
C) Bangladesh
D) Nepal
Correct Answer: C) Bangladesh
The Agartala–Akhaura Rail Link Project connects Tripura in India with Akhaura in Bangladesh.
Benefits:
Benefits:
- Improves trade and connectivity
- Strengthens India-Bangladesh relations
- Reduces travel time to Northeast India
Q17. A village with 1,20,000 population has 20 Sub-centres, 3 PHCs, and 1 CHC. According to IPHS norms, which facility needs to be enlarged?
A) Only PHC
B) Only Sub-centre
C) Only CHC
D) Both PHC and Sub-centre
Correct Answer: A) Only PHC
IPHS Norms:
- Sub-centre = 1 per 5000 population
- PHC = 1 per 30,000 population
- CHC = 1 per 1,20,000 population
Q18. A patient insists that someone is watching him with a hidden camera and tracking all his movements. This is best described as:
A) Delusion of reference
B) Delusion of control
C) Delusion of persecution
D) Somatic delusion
Correct Answer: C) Delusion of persecution
A delusion of persecution is a false fixed belief that others are:
- Spying
- Following
- Tracking
- Trying to harm the person
Q19. A depressed patient says, “I feel like a burden to my family. Sometimes I think of dying, but I don’t have any plan.” What should be the nurse’s best response?
A) Are you having a plan to die or suicide?
B) Tell me more about why you are feeling like this
C) Confront the patient about irrational thoughts
D) Ignore the statement
Correct Answer: A) Are you having a plan to die or suicide?
When suicidal thoughts are expressed, the first nursing priority is assessment of suicide risk.
Direct questions should include:
Direct questions should include:
- Are you thinking about suicide?
- Do you have a plan?
- Do you have access to means?
Q20. An infant with diarrhoea has sunken eyes, drinks eagerly, and skin pinch returns slowly. What is the correct classification?
A) Severe dehydration
B) No dehydration (home care)
C) Some dehydration (give ORS solution)
D) Refer to higher centre
Correct Answer: C) Some dehydration (give ORS solution)
According to WHO/IMNCI guidelines, Some Dehydration is diagnosed when two or more of the following are present:
- Sunken eyes
- Drinks eagerly/thirsty
- Skin pinch returns slowly
- ORS therapy (Plan B)
- Zinc supplementation
- Continue feeding and breastfeeding
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Q21. A diabetic patient on insulin develops sudden hypoglycemia (RBS 48 mg/dL) and serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L. What is the reason for decreased potassium?
A) Insulin increases serum potassium
B) Insulin decreases serum potassium by shifting it into cells
C) Insulin has no effect on potassium
D) Potassium loss due to urine
Correct Answer: B) Insulin decreases serum potassium by shifting it into cells
Insulin activates the Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump, causing potassium to move from the bloodstream into cells.
As a result:
Why other options are incorrect:
As a result:
- Blood glucose decreases
- Serum potassium decreases
Why other options are incorrect:
- A) Opposite effect of insulin.
- C) Insulin significantly affects potassium levels.
- D) Urinary loss is not the primary mechanism here.
Q22. A bed-ridden patient has redness over sacrum. On pressing, it does not blanch, but skin layer is intact. What grade of bed sore is this?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Correct Answer: A) Stage I
Stage I Pressure Injury is characterized by:
Why other options are incorrect:
- Intact skin
- Non-blanchable redness
- Localized erythema over bony prominence
Why other options are incorrect:
- Stage II → Partial-thickness skin loss or blister.
- Stage III → Full-thickness skin loss with fat visible.
- Stage IV → Exposure of muscle, tendon, or bone.
Q23. In a village of 5,000 population, there are 40 old cases and 60 new cases of a disease. What is the incidence rate per 1000 population?
A) 8 per 1000
B) 12 per 1000
C) 20 per 1000
D) 24 per 1000
Correct Answer: B) 12 per 1000
Incidence measures only NEW cases occurring during a specified period.
Formula: Incidence = (New Cases ÷ Population) × 1000 = (60 ÷ 5000) × 1000 = 12 per 1000 population.
Why old cases are not included?
Old cases contribute to prevalence, not incidence.
Formula: Incidence = (New Cases ÷ Population) × 1000 = (60 ÷ 5000) × 1000 = 12 per 1000 population.
Why old cases are not included?
Old cases contribute to prevalence, not incidence.
Q24. Rohan has exam on 12 March at Jaipur. Sara has exam 3 days later at Bhopal. Teena has exam 1 day after Rohan at Indore. Whose exam is on 13 March and where?
A) Rohan – Jaipur
B) Sara – Bhopal
C) Teena – Indore
D) None
Correct Answer: C) Teena – Indore
Timeline:
- Rohan → 12 March → Jaipur
- Teena → 13 March → Indore
- Sara → 15 March → Bhopal
Q25. A patient with pancreatitis presents with deficiency of vitamins A, D, E, K and inadequate triglyceride digestion. Which enzyme deficiency is responsible?
A) Amylase
B) Lipase
C) Pepsin
D) Trypsin
Correct Answer: B) Lipase
Pancreatic lipase is responsible for digestion of dietary fats (triglycerides).
Lipase deficiency causes:
Lipase deficiency causes:
- Steatorrhea
- Fat malabsorption
- Deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E and K
- Amylase → Carbohydrate digestion.
- Pepsin → Protein digestion in stomach.
- Trypsin → Protein digestion in intestine.
Q26. Endoscopes cannot be autoclaved. Which method is used for their sterilization/disinfection?
A) Autoclave
B) Boiling
C) 2% Glutaraldehyde
D) 70% Isopropyl alcohol
Correct Answer: C) 2% Glutaraldehyde
Flexible endoscopes are heat-sensitive instruments and cannot be sterilized by autoclaving.
2% Glutaraldehyde (Cidex) provides high-level disinfection and is traditionally used for:
2% Glutaraldehyde (Cidex) provides high-level disinfection and is traditionally used for:
- Endoscopes
- Bronchoscopes
- Other heat-sensitive instruments
- Autoclaving damages the equipment.
- Boiling is inadequate for high-level disinfection.
- 70% alcohol is mainly for surface disinfection.
Q27. Find the missing number in the series: 6, 14, 29, 53, 88, ?
A) 135
B) 136
C) 141
D) 150
Correct Answer: B) 136
First differences:
- 14−6 = 8
- 29−14 = 15
- 53−29 = 24
- 88−53 = 35
- 15−8 = 7
- 24−15 = 9
- 35−24 = 11
Q28. A patient requires 56 units of insulin in 2 divided doses. Available vial is U-100 insulin and syringe is 1 mL. What volume should be drawn for each dose?
A) 0.56 mL
B) 0.28 mL
C) 0.14 mL
D) 1.0 mL
Correct Answer: B) 0.28 mL
Total insulin dose = 56 units
Given in 2 divided doses:
56 ÷ 2 = 28 units per dose
U-100 insulin means:
100 units = 1 mL
Therefore:
28 units = 28/100 mL
= 0.28 mL
Why other options are incorrect:
For U-100 insulin, divide units by 100 to obtain volume in mL.
- 0.56 mL = Entire 56-unit dose.
- 0.14 mL = 14 units only.
- 1.0 mL = 100 units.
For U-100 insulin, divide units by 100 to obtain volume in mL.
🎯 SGPGI Nursing Officer Memory Based Paper – Quick Revision
- Insulin shifts potassium into cells.
- Stage I Pressure Injury = Non-blanchable erythema.
- Incidence = New cases only.
- Lipase digests fats and aids absorption of vitamins A, D, E, K.
- Endoscope disinfection = 2% Glutaraldehyde.
- U-100 Insulin = 100 units/mL.
- Reasoning series often uses first and second difference patterns.
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